Presumably you are paying a lease owner, rather than freehold, so I would go through your lease with a fine tooth comb. This does constitute a sub-let, as well as a commercial premises, and I expect there would be something in it about either of those. Sometimes, it can be also in the inherited terms of the freehold; by that I mean that the original landowner can set out conditions on the purchaser/developer that prevents it. (I lived in a suburb of Swansea where the land had gone from the estate owner to the coal board and on to various developers, but none could set up a business in hospitality nor sell alcohol in the whole area because the original 19th century owner had made it a condition; my current freehold insist that my neighbours must keep the dyke clean and clear along their boundary) Interesting stuff